Just to let everyone know, Friday's and the weekend I lay off of social media... unless I'm bored.
The word Paul uses in 1 Cor. 5 is 'porneia' that is a wide term for fornication, a general sexual immorality Paul is applying to the man and his actions. If Paul wanted to condemn actual adultery taking place, he would have used the term 'moicheia' instead. Adultery by definition means one of the two partners in marriage is fooling around (the Romans and Jews saw adultery the same way we do today and it's pretty clear-cut with everyone). In otherwards, with this SPECIFIC case I don't believe true adultery was taking place here, hence Paul's use of a general term of "sexual immorality" with 'porneia.'
Paul saw SOME type of transgression against SOMEONE with this specific situation and your conclusion makes perfect and logical sense, but here's the rub. The mother would be committing true adultery on her husband if he were still alive and she's not even mentioned other than in passing and what looks like having no consequences for HER actions. This church, somehow, didn't see it as being an issue (the main issue?) of "adultery" between a married couple and Paul is going with that while still addressing the sexual immorality taking place.
To add to the confusion, in 1 Cor 6, Paul uses the word 'porneuó' that can mean adultery AND incest. Now I don't know enough about the differences between the two Greek words (porneuó/porneia) if there is any difference at all.
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Just to let everyone know, Friday's and the weekend I lay off of social media... unless I'm bored.
The word Paul uses in 1 Cor. 5 is 'porneia' that is a wide term for fornication, a general sexual immorality Paul is applying to the man and his actions. If Paul wanted to condemn actual adultery taking place, he would have used the term 'moicheia' instead. Adultery by definition means one of the two partners in marriage is fooling around (the Romans and Jews saw adultery the same way we do today and it's pretty clear-cut with everyone). In otherwards, with this SPECIFIC case I don't believe true adultery was taking place here, hence Paul's use of a general term of "sexual immorality" with 'porneia.'
Paul saw SOME type of transgression against SOMEONE with this specific situation and your conclusion makes perfect and logical sense, but here's the rub. The mother would be committing true adultery on her husband if he were still alive and she's not even mentioned other than in passing and what looks like having no consequences for HER actions. This church, somehow, didn't see it as being an issue (the main issue?) of "adultery" between a married couple and Paul is going with that while still addressing the sexual immorality taking place.
To add to the confusion, in 1 Cor 6, Paul uses the word 'porneuó' that can mean adultery AND incest. Now I don't know enough about the differences between the two Greek words (porneuó/porneia) if there is any difference at all.
Sorry I can't help you more with this.
But there IS an injured party because someone is dishonored and it's stated who in Lev 18:8:
"Do not have sexual relations with your father's wife; THAT would dishonor your father."
Later the Christian Emperor Justinian decreed a man could not marry his stepmother with the Roman people for the same reason.
Harlotry, as in actual prostitution, is yes, one of the closest associations with the word 'porneia' going as far back as Jeremiah and Hosea.
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